next up previous contents index
Next: An Estimation Problem Up: Infinite Series Previous: The Comparison Test   Contents   Index

Absolute and Conditional Convergence

So far most of our work has been with series all of whose terms are positive. There is a good reason for this; there is very little we can say about series with mixed signs. Indeed there is just one useful result at this level, which is the topic of this section.

The easiest case occurs when the series really can be thought of as a series of positive terms.

Definition 6.23   The series $ \sum_{{n=1}}^{\infty}$an is absolutely convergent iff the series $ \sum_{{n=1}}^{\infty}$| an| is convergent.

Definition 6.24   The series $ \sum_{{n=1}}^{\infty}$an is conditionally convergent if and only if the series $ \sum_{{n=1}}^{\infty}$an is convergent but not absolutely convergent.

Example 6.25   Show that the series $\displaystyle \sum_{{n=1}}^{\infty}$$\displaystyle {\frac{{(-1)^{n+1}}}{{n^2}}}$ is absolutely convergent.

Solution. We have $\displaystyle \sum_{{n=1}}^{\infty}$$\displaystyle \left\vert\vphantom{\frac{(-1)^{n+1}}{n^2}}\right.$$\displaystyle {\frac{{(-1)^{n+1}}}{{n^2}}}$$\displaystyle \left.\vphantom{\frac{(-1)^{n+1}}{n^2}}\right\vert$ = $\displaystyle \sum_{{n=1}}^{\infty}$$\displaystyle {\frac{{1}}{{n^2}}}$ and this is convergent by 6.19. So $\displaystyle \sum_{{n=1}}^{\infty}$$\displaystyle {\frac{{(-1)^{n+1}}}{{n^2}}}$ is absolutely convergent.


Note:We choose to work with the sign (- 1)n+1 rather than (- 1)n simply for tidiness; it is usual to start a series with a positive term, so the coefficient of a1 is chosen to be +. Thus that of a2 must be - etc if the series is to alternate.


Exercise 6.26   Show that the series $\displaystyle \sum_{{n=2}}^{\infty}$$\displaystyle {\frac{{(-1)^n}}{{n^2\log n}}}$ is absolutely convergent.

Exercise 6.27   Show that the series $\displaystyle \sum_{{n=1}}^{\infty}$$\displaystyle {\frac{{\sin n}}{{n^2}}}$ is absolutely convergent. [Hint: note that | sin n|$ \le$1, and use the comparison test.]

Our interest in absolutely convergent series starts by observing that they are in fact all convergent. Indeed this is the easiest way to show a series is convergent if the terms are not all positive.

Proposition 6.28   An absolutely convergent series is convergent.

Proof. Assume that $ \sum_{{n=1}}^{\infty}$an is absolutely convergent, and define

an+ = $\displaystyle \left\{\vphantom{\begin{array}{ll}
a_n&\mbox{if $a_n > 0$}\\
0 &\mbox{if $a_n \le 0$}
\end{array} }\right.$$\displaystyle \begin{array}{ll}
a_n&\mbox{if $a_n > 0$}\\
0 &\mbox{if $a_n \le 0$}
\end{array}$    and    an- = $\displaystyle \left\{\vphantom{\begin{array}{ll}
\vert a_n\vert&\mbox{if $a_n < 0$}\\
0 &\mbox{if $a_n \ge 0$}
\end{array} }\right.$$\displaystyle \begin{array}{ll}
\vert a_n\vert&\mbox{if $a_n < 0$}\\
0 &\mbox{if $a_n \ge 0$}
\end{array}$

The point of this definition is that

0$\displaystyle \le$an+$\displaystyle \le$| an|    and    0$\displaystyle \le$an-$\displaystyle \le$| an|    for all n,     (6.1)

so we have two new series of positive terms, while

| an| = an+ + an-    and    an = an+ - an-.

Using equation 6.1 to compare with the convergent series $ \sum_{{n=1}}^{\infty}$| an|, we see that each of

$\displaystyle \sum_{{n=1}}^{\infty}$an+    and    $\displaystyle \sum_{{n=1}}^{\infty}$an-

is a convergent series of positive terms. Thus

$\displaystyle \sum_{{n=1}}^{\infty}$an = $\displaystyle \sum_{{n=1}}^{\infty}$an+ - an- = $\displaystyle \sum_{{n=1}}^{\infty}$an+ + $\displaystyle \sum_{{n=1}}^{\infty}$an-

is also convergent using 6.11. $ \qedsymbol$

This gives one way of proving that a series is convergent even if the terms are not all positive, and so we can't use the comparison test directly. There is essentially only one other way, which is a very special, but useful case known as Leibniz theorem, or the theorem on alternating signs, or the alternating series test. We give the proof because the argument is so like the proof of the convergence of the ratio of adjacent terms in the Fibonacci series 3.1.

Warning:Note how we usually talk about the ``Fibonacci series'', even though it is a sequence rather than a series. Try not to be confused by this popular but inaccurate usage.


Theorem 6.29   Leibniz Theorem Let {an} be a decreasing sequence of positive terms such that an$ \to$ 0 as n$ \to$$ \infty$. Then the series

$\displaystyle \sum_{{n=1}}^{\infty}$(- 1)n+1an    is convergent.    

Proof. Write Sn for the nth partial sum of the series $\displaystyle \sum_{{n=1}}^{\infty}$(- 1)n+1an. We show this sequence has the same type of oscillating behaviour that the corresponding sequence of partial sums in the Fibonacci example. By definition, we have

s2n+1 = a1 - a2 + a3 -...+ a2n-1 - a2n + a2n+1    
s2n-1 = a1 - a2 + a3 -...+ a2n-1    

and so, subtracting, we have


s2n+1 = s2n-1 - a2n + a2n+1.    

Since {an} is a decreasing sequence, a2n > a2n+1 and so s2n+1 < s2n-1. Thus we have a decreasing sequence

s1 > s3 > s5 >...> s2n-1 > s2n+1 >....

Similarly s2n > s2n-2 and we have an increasing sequence

s2 < s4 < s6...< s2n-2 < s2n <....

Also

s2n+1 = s2n + a2n+1 > s2n

Thus

s2 < s4 < s6...< s2n-2 < s2n < s2n+1 < s2n-1 <...s5 < s3 < s1

and the sequence s1, s3, s5, ... is a decreasing sequence which is bounded below (by s2), and so by 3.9 is convergent to $ \alpha$ (say). Similarly s2, s4, s6, ... is an increasing sequence which is bounded above (by s1), and so by 3.9 is convergent to $ \beta$ (say) also

s2n+1 - s2n = a2n+1    

and so letting n$ \to$$ \infty$


$\displaystyle \alpha$ - $\displaystyle \beta$ = 0    

So $ \alpha$ = $ \beta$, and all the partial sums are tending to $ \alpha$, so the series converges. $ \qedsymbol$

Example 6.30   Show that the series $\displaystyle \sum_{{n=1}}^{\infty}$$\displaystyle {\frac{{(-1)^{n+1}}}{{n}}}$ is conditionally convergent.

Solution. We have $\displaystyle \sum_{{n=1}}^{\infty}$$\displaystyle \left\vert\vphantom{\frac{(-1)^{n+1}}{n}}\right.$$\displaystyle {\frac{{(-1)^{n+1}}}{{n}}}$$\displaystyle \left.\vphantom{\frac{(-1)^{n+1}}{n}}\right\vert$ = $\displaystyle \sum_{{n=1}}^{\infty}$$\displaystyle {\frac{{1}}{{n}}}$ and this is divergent by 6.19; thus the series is not absolutely convergent. We show using 6.29 that this series is still convergent, and so is conditionally convergent.

Write an = 1/n, so an > 0, an+1 < an and an$ \to$ 0 as n$ \to$$ \infty$. Thus all the conditions of Leibniz's theorem are satisfied, and so the series $\displaystyle \sum_{{n=1}}^{\infty}$$\displaystyle {\frac{{(-1)^{n+1}}}{{n}}}$ is convergent.


Proposition 6.31 (Re-arranging an Absolutely convergent Series)   Let $ \sum_{{n=1}}^{\infty}$an be an absolutely convergent series and suppose that {bn} is a re-arrangement of {an}. Then $ \sum_{{n=1}}^{\infty}$bn is convergent, and

$\displaystyle \sum_{{n=1}}^{\infty}$bn = $\displaystyle \sum_{{n=1}}^{\infty}$an.

Proof. See next year, or (Spivak, 1967); the point here is that we need absolute convergence before series behave in a reasonable way. $ \qedsymbol$

Warning:It is not useful to re-arrange conditionally convergent series (remember the rearrangement I did in section 1.1). There is a result which is an extreme form of this:

Pick x $ \in$ $ \mathbb {R}$, and let $ \sum_{{n=1}}^{\infty}$an be a conditionally convergent series. then there is a re-arrangement {bn} of {an} such that $ \sum_{{n=1}}^{\infty}$bn = x!
In other words, we can re-arrange to get any answer we want!



next up previous contents index
Next: An Estimation Problem Up: Infinite Series Previous: The Comparison Test   Contents   Index
Ian Craw 2002-01-07